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About the settlement on the earthquake in the South America
I'm sorry, but I completely desagree with the way that was settled the question about the South America earthquake - http://www.hubdub.com/e/Market/Will_t...
The provided explanation isn't convincing.
The earthquake occured about 100 km off the shores of Chile in open waters, which is not "close" to the shores, nor is the South America continent. Instead, this is the Pacific and not the continent.
The phrase 'offshore Chile" doesn't mean South America and doesn't reffer to the proper geographical notion of this continent.
The admin expains: "earthquakes categorised by region", but this is the so called Flinn-Engdahl Regions which largely differ from the political boundaries and usual and common geographical locations.
And when it is said South America and NOT "according to the Flinn-Engdahl Regions", then this is the common geographical location which include only the land and not waters of the oceans.
Clarification of the notion of region is on the site of USGS here http://earthquake.usgs.gov/eqcenter/g...
and of the Flinn-Engdahl Regions is here: http://earthquake.usgs.gov/learning/t...
I think this is not a "settlement ... as accurately as possible according to the source of settlement".
And I think this should be resettled.
Sorry, but just an opinion which I was motivated to put on the attention here because this is not the only case of unprecise settlements and actions.
The provided explanation isn't convincing.
The earthquake occured about 100 km off the shores of Chile in open waters, which is not "close" to the shores, nor is the South America continent. Instead, this is the Pacific and not the continent.
The phrase 'offshore Chile" doesn't mean South America and doesn't reffer to the proper geographical notion of this continent.
The admin expains: "earthquakes categorised by region", but this is the so called Flinn-Engdahl Regions which largely differ from the political boundaries and usual and common geographical locations.
And when it is said South America and NOT "according to the Flinn-Engdahl Regions", then this is the common geographical location which include only the land and not waters of the oceans.
Clarification of the notion of region is on the site of USGS here http://earthquake.usgs.gov/eqcenter/g...
and of the Flinn-Engdahl Regions is here: http://earthquake.usgs.gov/learning/t...
I think this is not a "settlement ... as accurately as possible according to the source of settlement".
And I think this should be resettled.
Sorry, but just an opinion which I was motivated to put on the attention here because this is not the only case of unprecise settlements and actions.
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Inappropriate?But isn't 100km offshore well within the geo-political boundaries of Chile, which is part of South America geo-politically? I may be wrong, but I thought most countries on oceans claimed 200 miles.
I agree with the general point though. Much chaos is to be found at the boundary of things. At some point, some real attention is going to have to be paid to designing protocol for determining set membership, as well as dealing with what numbers mean and don't mean in scientific reportage. Problems with settlements are going to become a major hassle otherwise.
In this case, you can't really fault the question-creator with being too vague, and yet it turns out there's an arguably valid questioning of whether or not the settlement is correct. We're going to need a fairly detailed and exhaustive "fine print" addendum to the rules with extremely precise and clear rules for deciding questions, I believe. -
Inappropriate?The reference you make, infernalmachine, is to a coastal country's Exclusive Economic Zone which extends 200 nautical miles from the coastline. A coastal country has exclusive rights to all resources within this area of sea (such as fishing, mining) but not to passage (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Territor...). A country's continental shelf extends to a similar distance.
This earthquake occurred 80 nautical miles offshore, which would mean it was still within Chile's EEZ although outwith it's territorial seas (which extend only 12 miles). There is an argument either way as to whether this constitutes "South America".
Looking at the market fluctuation, it is obvious that nobody was clear about the definition, so I therefore think the fairest option has to be to void it and to amend the Rules to reflect it. (I'm thinking something along the lines of: unless otherwise stated, in questions regarding an earthquake occuring in a specific country, the earthquake must occur on land - within the country's geo-political boundry - or within it's territorial waters (12 nautical miles offshore).
I would appreciate your thoughts and comments on this suggestion.
Lesley.
The company says
this solves the problem
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Inappropriate?I agree with Leslie.
The best way is to void the question and to clarify rules on that subject. That would be fair to all participants.
It is also obvious that the majority of the stakes on the opion "Yes" was put AFTER the quake occur, because the suspend date was equal to the expiring period of time, which is also questionable.
So - void and clarify the rules. -
Inappropriate?Thanks for the link. I'm glad to find out I wasn't imagining the 200 mile zone. The issue seems as contentious as a Hubdub settlement.
I agree about the void. Also about the rule update. I'm also wondering if you need to specify continents (ie Are the Aleutians part of North America (they get lots of earthquakes), etc.) as well. Are Guam and Puerto Rico IN the US? That kind of thing. Also, if the question is multiple choice about where an earthquake, etc., may happen, that "in the oceans" should be an option - where that means not within the 12 n. mile territorial waters or mainland of any of the other options.
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